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Jun 26, 2023 at 9:38 comment added ryang Sullivan's underlying point is quite certainly (and uncontroversially) just that A⟹1=1 is not a valid proof of A; however, his phrasing "do not establish identifies by handling them like conditional equations" could have been better: this appears to assume that f(x)=g(x)⟹...⟹x=±3 followed by 3 is extraneous, so the only solution is -3 is the only correct way to solve conditional equations while ignoring that f(x)=g(x)⟺...⟺x=-3 is legitimate too. $\quad$ My take on his remark is at the addendum of Questions about proofs.
Sep 3, 2017 at 4:42 answer added Jim H timeline score: 3
Jul 12, 2017 at 20:59 history edited Daniel R. Collins CC BY-SA 3.0
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Jul 12, 2017 at 14:19 history edited Daniel R. Collins CC BY-SA 3.0
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Jul 12, 2017 at 7:00 answer added YawarRaza7349 timeline score: 8
Jul 11, 2017 at 17:02 answer added Uwe timeline score: 10
Jul 11, 2017 at 16:57 answer added rnrstopstraffic timeline score: 6
Jul 11, 2017 at 15:48 history asked Daniel R. Collins CC BY-SA 3.0