This mistake is frequently made by mathematicians in the following way. First consider this proof:
- Let $S$ be any finite set of prime numbers. (For example, one could have $S=\{2,7,19\}$.)
- Prove that the prime factors of $1+\prod S$ are not members of $S$. [Details omitted.]
- Conclude that every finite set $S$ of prime numbers is a subset of some larger finite set of prime numbers.
Euclid wrote that proof. It is not by contradiction.
Dirichlet in the 19th century and many eminent mathematicians since then have rearranged Euclid's proof to read as follows:
- Assume only finitely many prime numbers exist.
- Then insert the argument described above here, proving there are infinitely many prime numbers.
- This is a contradiction; hence the assumption was false.
Dirichlet and many later authors wrote that Euclid's proof was by contradiction. That is a historical error. Rearranging it into a proof by contradiction just makes it more complicated and serves no purpose. It also leads to errors, in the following way. An author writes something like "The number $1+\prod S$, having no prime factors, must be prime itself. But that contradicts the assumption [etc.]." Then students think that it has been proved that if you multiply the first $n$ prime numbers and then add $1$, the result is always prime. But that is false: $1+(2\times3\times5\times7\times11\times13) = 59\times 509$ and there are many other counterexamples.
Without the assumption that $S$ contains all primes numbers, one would not conclude that a number not divisible by any member of $S$ is not divisible by any prime, and without that, one would not conclude that it must itself be prime. Hence rearranging the proof into a proof by contradiction has introduced a substantial error.
One student proposed to prove infinitely many twin primes exist by saying that $\pm1+\prod S$ are both prime whenever $S$ is the set of the first $n$ primes. (But that of course is false.)
Another student went to Wolfram and found numerous counterexamples and claimed that therefore Euclid's proof was wrong. But in fact, Euclid's proof was right.
Catherine Woodgold and I published a paper examining the history of this error committed by otherwise respectable mathematicians.
So why do mathematicians "read this structure into a proof even when it isn't there"?