I am going to disagree (slightly) with Benoit Kloeckner's observation that the OP's implicit claim is false in finite fields. If we are going to allow ourselves the sophistication to look at fields other than $\mathbb{R}$, we should also oblige ourselves to distinguish between a polynomial and a polynomial function.
Give any ring $R$, a polynomial in $R$ is an element of the ring $R[x]$. A polynomial can be written uniquely as a finite sum of terms of the form $a_n x^n$, where $a_n \in R$ and $x$ is a formal variable. A polynomial function is what you get when you interpret a polynomial as a function on $R$ in the obvious way. A polynomial is an expression, but a polynomial function is (at the formal level) a set of ordered pairs. Every polynomial naturally induces a polynomial function, but they remain different kinds of objects.
When we talk about "simplifying polynomials" we are referring to operations in $R[x]$. For example, the fact that $(x-1)(x+1)(x+2)$ can be simplified to $x^3+2x^2-x-2$ is a consequence of the way the ring operations are defined in $R[x]$ (assuming $R$ is $\mathbb{Z}$, $\mathbb{R}$, or some other ring in which the symbols $1$ and $2$ have a natural interpretation). The fact that $x^3+2x^2-x-2$ cannot be further reduced to an expression with fewer terms is also true in $R[x]$ for any such $R$. Now, it turns out (surprisingly!) that if $R=\mathbb{Z}/(3)$ this polynomial induces the exact same function as does $2x^2-2$.
But (and here is where my disagreement with Benoit lies) despite the fact that $x^3+2x^2-x-2$ and $2x^2-2$ are identical when considered as functions over $\mathbb{Z}/(3)$, they are still different polynomials. They have different degrees, different number of terms, and different leading coefficients, and they generate different ideals.
So while it is true that $t^3+2t^2-t-2 = t^2-2$ may be true for all $t \in \mathbb{Z}/(3)$, I would not describe the replacement of the left-hand side by the right-hand side as "simplification".
Having gone through all of these preliminaries, let's go back to the OP's original question, which we can now tease apart into two different questions:
Why is it that "unlike terms" in a polynomial can't be combined into a single term?
Why is it that when working over the real numbers, two different polynomials never induce the same function?
To answer the first question, I would turn it back onto the asker (or his students): Why do you think they should be combined? What do you think they should be combined into? The fact that like terms (e.g. $5x^2y + 3 x^2y$) can be combined (continuing the example, into $8x^2y$) depends on the distributive property, but the OP does not want an explanation that has to do with formal properties. So that means we first need an informal explanation for why you can combine like terms; then we can try to see why the same reasoning does not work for unlike terms.
Informally, "combining like terms" (as in our example $5x^2y = 3x^2y = 8 x^2y$) can be explained by noting that five things plus three things equals eight things, regardless of what the 'things' are. Five bags of 100 marbles, plus three bags of 100 marbles, add up to 8 bags of 100 marbles. Five 12-packs of bottled water plus three 12-packs of bottled water add up to eight 12-packs of bottled water. In this case, the things are expressions of the form $x^2y$. If you have five of them and three of them, then you have eight of them.
But if you have unlike things -- say, five bags of 100 marbles and three 12-packs of bottled water -- what can you combine them into? There are eight "somethings", but the "somethings" cannot be given a simple name. Likewise, if you want to combine $5x^2y+3xy^2$, there may be a strong temptation to want to say that there are 8 "somethings", but how can you say what the "somethings" are?
That, at least, is how I would informally address the formal question of why unlike terms in a polynomial cannot be combined.
Which brings us to the second question: Why is it that two different polynomials over the reals never induce the same function? As has been noted, this is a rather special property of the reals. It is false when working over any finite ring; it is true when working over any infinite ring that is also an integral domain. The most general conditions under which this property holds are given in the answers to this question on MathOverflow.