I am teaching probability on mutually exclusiveness and dependency of events. Let me take a simple example as follows.
A box contains 2 red balls and 3 purple balls. They are identical except for their color. A ball is randomly taken, the color is noted, and it is replaced back to the box. We repeat this action twice.
- Let $A$ be the event that a red ball is taken in the first draw.
- Let $B$ be the event that a purple ball is taken in the second draw.
- Let $C$ be the event that there are 2 red balls in the 2 draws.
- Let $D$ be the event that there are 2 purple balls in the 2 draws.
First Fallacy
A student answers that $A$ and $B$ are mutually exclusive because there is no intersection between $A=\{R_1,R_2\}$ and $B=\{P_1,P_2,P_3\}$. He then calculates the probability that the first ball is red or the second ball is purple is $$ p(A\cup B) = 2/5 +3/5 =1 $$
Second Fallacy
A student answers that $C$ and $D$ are independent because $C$ and $D$ don't interfere each other. He then calculates $$ p(C\cap D) = 4/25 \times 9/25 = 36/625 $$
Question
How do we correct him with easy-to-digest explanation?