Let me take a moment to look at an example which involves more variables. Consider the map defined by:
$$f(x,y) = \left( \frac{x}{x^2+y^2},\frac{-y}{x^2+y^2}\right)$$
for $(x,y) \neq (0,0)$. Let us study how to find the inverse map. We seek $f^{-1}$ such that
$$ f(f^{-1}(u,v)) = (u,v) \qquad \& \qquad f^{-1}(f(x,y))=(x,y) $$
for all appropriate $(u,v)$ and $(x,y)$. If $f: dom(f) \rightarrow range(f)$ then $f^{-1}: range(f) \rightarrow dom(f)$. In this example we should eventually be convinced that $dom(f)=range(f) = \mathbb{R}^2-\{ (0,0)\}$.
Pragmatically, to calculate the formula for the inverse we can set $f(x,y) = (u,v)$ and solve the following for $x$ and $y$.
$$ \left( \frac{x}{x^2+y^2},\frac{-y}{x^2+y^2}\right) = (u,v) \ \ (*) $$
Remember, we assume $(x,y) \neq (0,0)$ hence multiplication by $x^2+y^2$ is a reasonable step.
$$(x,-y) = (u(x^2+y^2), v(x^2+y^2)) $$
which means $ x = u(x^2+y^2)$ and $-y = v(x^2+y^2)$. Suppose $u,v \neq 0$, we can return to the cases $u=0, v\neq 0$ and $u \neq 0, v=0$ after we've finished the interesting case. We already can rule out the case $u=v=0$ since that forces $x=y=0$ in view of the above equations. Now solve both equations for $x^2+y^2$,
$$ x^2+y^2 = \frac{x}{u} = \frac{-y}{v} \ \ (**)$$
Next, consider
$$ u^2+v^2 = \left(\frac{x}{x^2+y^2} \right)^2+ \left(\frac{-y}{x^2+y^2} \right)^2 = \frac{x^2+y^2}{(x^2+y^2)^2} = \frac{1}{x^2+y^2} \ \ \Rightarrow x^2+y^2 = \frac{1}{u^2+v^2}. $$
Great, now with the above and (**) we derive:
$$ \frac{x}{u} = \frac{1}{u^2+v^2} \qquad \& \qquad \frac{-y}{v} = \frac{1}{u^2+v^2} $$
Thus,
$$ x = \frac{u}{u^2+v^2} \qquad \& \qquad y = \frac{-v}{u^2+v^2} $$
We find,
$$ f^{-1}(u,v) = \left( \frac{u}{u^2+v^2}, \frac{-v}{u^2+v^2} \right) $$
But, what about $u=0, v\neq 0$ ? Let's investigate if the formula above works in such a context,
\begin{align}
f(f^{-1}(0,v)) &= f\left( \frac{0}{0^2+v^2}, \frac{-v}{0^2+v^2} \right) \\
&= f(0, -1/v) \\
&= \left(\frac{0}{0^2+(-1/v)^2}, \frac{-(-1/v)}{0^2+(-1/v)^2}\right) \\
&= \left(0, \frac{1/v}{1/v^2}\right) \\
&= \left(0,v \right).
\end{align}
Similar calculations show that $f(f^{-1}(u,0)) = (u,0)$. Indeed, you can check, $f(f^{-1}(u,v) = (u,v)$ for all $(u,v) \neq (0,0)$. Amusingly, pretty much identical calculations reveal that $f^{-1}(f(x,y)) = (x,y)$ for $(x,y) \neq 0$. In fact, since $dom(f) = range(f)$ we might as well say $f=f^{-1}$ in this case. But, if I intend to keep distinct the copies of $\mathbb{R}^2$ in which $dom(f)$ and $range(f)$ reside then writing $f=f^{-1}$ is not a good idea. I suspect a notation such as:
$$ f: dom(f) \subset \mathbb{R}^2_{xy} \rightarrow range(f) \subset \mathbb{R}^2_{uv} $$
and
$$ f^{-1}: range(f) \subset \mathbb{R}^2_{uv} \rightarrow dom(f) \subset \mathbb{R}^2_{xy} $$
is helpful.
Fine, full disclosure, $f(z) = 1/z$ hence $w=1/z$ yielding $z =1/w$ gives $f^{-1}(w) = 1/w$ is the better way to see that the reciprocal map on the punctured plane is it's own inverse.
If students in the precalculus are taught to solve for the independent variable in terms of the dependent variable then it is a fairly easy transition to higher dimensions where we simply solve for the independent variables in terms of the dependent variables.