tldr: There is a simple intuitive definition of a limit for monotone sequences, and I suggest that it can be used to motivate the (more complicated) standard definition. I am asking for feedback on my suggestion. Do you think it can form a good motivation to present the students?
Edit: My target audience are students who are taking a rigorous calculus course, where full proofs and rigorous arguments are the center of the course. In particular, more than a third of the course is devoted to sequences and their limits. (Subsequence, Cauchy sequences, Bolzano–Weierstrass theorem etc). The course begins with sequences, and only after about 6 weeks we move to treat functions.
I suggest an approach for motivating the definition of a limit of a sequence.
What are good ways to help students understand the nested quantifiers in the definition of limit
While thinking of the definition of a limit of a sequence lately, I had the following thought: Naively, there is something which might appear unsatisfactory with the order of the quantifiers:
For every $\epsilon>0$ there exists $N$ such that...
Intuitively, we would like to say that "as $n$ increases, $a_n$ tends closer and closer to the limit $L$".
So very naively, we would like something in the spirit of $$n_1 >n_2 \Rightarrow |a_{n_1}-L| < |a_{n_2}-L|, \tag{1}$$
which suggests first choosing $n$, and then choosing $\epsilon$.
Of course, this specific formulation $(1)$ is bad, since it assumes monotonicity, and it also does not imply that $|a_n-L|$ tends to $0$, it can tend to $17$ instead. (it implies that $a_n$ tends closer and closer to $L$, but not necessarily arbitrarily close to it).
The point is that the standard definition can seem "intuitively backwards".
Question: Do you think that the following idea provides a good justification/motivation for the way we define the limit concept? (perhaps in honors courses).
First, we define what does it mean for a monotone sequence to converge. This can be done in a more intuitive way, similarly to $(1)$, which produces something which is equivalent to the standard definition. (see definition below).
Second, we use the Sandwich theorem as a guiding principle: It is intuitive to say, that whatever notion of convergence we want to have, it should obey the Sandwich theorem.
Now, one can prove that a sequence $a_n$ converges to $L$ (by the standard definition) if and only if there exist monotonically increasing $b_n$ and monotonically decreasing $c_n$ such that $b_n \le a_n \le c_n$, and $b_n,c_n \to L$.
For example, one can define $$c_{n} := \sup_{k \geq n}a_{k}, b_{n} := \inf_{k \geq n}a_{k}.$$
Then $$ \lim c_n =\limsup a_n = L =\liminf a_n =\lim b_n. $$
(One can prove this claim directly, over any ordered field actually, without assuming and using the existence of infimums or supremums, but never mind that for now).
To summarize, I suggest:
- Define convergence for monotone sequences (below).
- Show that a sequence converges via the standard definition if and only if it is bounded by monotone sequences which converge to the same limit (via definition $1$).
The point is that after we have done this, we keep only the standard definition, which this reasoning "confirmed", since it's much more concise and easy to work with, then constructing bounding monotone sequences every time we want to prove a limit etc...
My definition of convergence for monotone sequences:
We say a monotone sequence $a_n$ converges to $L$ if
$\forall n_1,n_2 \in \mathbb{N} \,\,\, n_1 >n_2 \Rightarrow |a_{n_1}-L| < |a_{n_2}-L|$.
$\forall \epsilon >0$, there exists $n \in \mathbb{N}$ such that $|a_{n}-L| < \epsilon. $
Item $2$ enforces the arbitrarily closed (without it there is no uniqueness).