In helping a family member who is studying calculus, I was asked about the meaning of the following, which is straight out of a calculus text book (Varberg and Purcell)
$v'(t) = \frac{{\rm d}\,v}{{\rm d}t}$
I've also seen the same thing elsewhere.
Now I haven't done much calculus since my undergrad, but I've done a lot of logic and C.S.; so much, in fact, that I am now unable to read a formula without fretting about the type and binding of each variable. To my (perhaps hypercritical) eye this looks plain wrong: on the, left $v$ is being treated as a function. On the right, $v$ is being treated as a (dependent) real variable. To me, it seems the equation should be written as
$v'(t) = \frac{{\rm d}\,v(t)}{{\rm d}t}$
or as
$\dot{v} = \frac{{\rm d}\,v}{{\rm d}t}$ ,
depending on whether you want to treat $v$ as a function or as a variable.
My question: Is the text book being sloppy about notation, or is there some defensible interpretation of $v'(t) = \frac{{\rm d}\,v}{{\rm d}t}$ that I'm missing?