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9 votes

Why is it written $\tan^{-1}$?

I will start by noting that I have written an answer to a similar question on Mathematics SE, and would direct you towards that answer for some additional discussion. In my precalculus class, I tend ...
Xander Henderson's user avatar
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12 votes

Why is it written $\tan^{-1}$?

It's the functional inverse rather than the multiplicative inverse. Somewhere along the way, notation arrived at function composition being written as $f(f(x))=f^2(x)$, so the functional inverse ...
Adam's user avatar
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