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May 6, 2022 at 0:34 comment added paul garrett There's no "reasoning behind doing the opposite of convention, thereby wildly failing to communicate". It's not that "in math" we can/should routinely declare that "yes" means "no", and vice-versa, ... even though, in principle, we would do such stuff.
May 5, 2022 at 19:27 answer added Reuleaux timeline score: 1
May 4, 2022 at 1:38 comment added paul garrett Such a choice is sort-of like driving "on the wrong side of the road": it's not abstractly "wrong", but depending whether you're in the UK v.s. US it has vast practical ramifications.
May 3, 2022 at 12:37 comment added kcrisman "The student is wrong; they cannot both be used." - there are oriented paths, and hence an oriented interval could work for this in one dimension. But agreed that in context it's almost certainly not what is implied.
May 3, 2022 at 12:34 answer added kcrisman timeline score: 1
May 2, 2022 at 16:14 comment added Daniel R. Collins "The student knows both notations can be used..." The student is wrong; they cannot both be used.
May 1, 2022 at 17:51 answer added guest troll timeline score: -2
May 1, 2022 at 17:02 comment added Dave L Renfro Unless I were told explicitly about the alternate notation (and I'd wonder why use it, and if it were a paper or book, that would be a huge red flag for me continuing to read/browse the item), I would assume something like $(3,2)$ is equal to the empty set. Indeed, sometimes it's helpful to have this convention to avoid special cases in expressions and theorem statements, although authors should be explicit about this convention also.
May 1, 2022 at 16:11 comment added Sue VanHattum I'm not sure why you say "both notations can be used", since you didn't say that there was a reason this non-standard notation was usable.
May 1, 2022 at 13:28 vote accept nuF sI htaM
May 1, 2022 at 13:20 answer added Xander Henderson timeline score: 11
May 1, 2022 at 12:06 answer added Tommi timeline score: 6
May 1, 2022 at 11:11 comment added nuF sI htaM There was no any intention, the student knows both are correct and writes (a,b) where a>b due to added - in front of b.Originally it was written as (a,b) where a<b, but later on the minus itself changed the notation.The student knows both notations can be used so doesn't swap places due to hypothetically speaking not being allowed to correct it
May 1, 2022 at 11:03 comment added Michał Miśkiewicz The way you describe it, there's no reasoning behind it and there couldn't be, as it's just a convention. Does the student explicitly introduce the conflicting non-standard notation? But first of all, why? Just to make the grader angry?
S May 1, 2022 at 10:49 review First questions
May 1, 2022 at 13:21
S May 1, 2022 at 10:49 history asked nuF sI htaM CC BY-SA 4.0