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Jul 5, 2017 at 16:36 comment added Daniel R. Collins Every freshman calculus text that I've seen explicitly restricts the definition of a continuous function to considering only points in the domain, such that the answer is "yes", $f(x) = 1/x$ is a continuous function. E.g., in Stein/Barcellos Sec. 2.8 that is the very first example.
Aug 10, 2014 at 21:34 history edited Pete L. Clark CC BY-SA 3.0
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Aug 10, 2014 at 16:38 history edited Pete L. Clark CC BY-SA 3.0
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Aug 10, 2014 at 16:28 history edited Pete L. Clark CC BY-SA 3.0
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Aug 10, 2014 at 16:20 comment added Pete L. Clark @Darksonn: The Fundamental Theorem of Calculus applies separately on each interval. Thus the most general antiderivative of $g$ is $F(x) = \log x + C_1$ for $x > 0$ and $\log (-x) + C_2$ for $x < 0$, where $C_1,C_2$ are two arbitrary constants. (metacompactness and I had some previous exchanges about this which we both deleted.)
Aug 10, 2014 at 9:04 comment added user5402 @Darksonn Of course.
Aug 10, 2014 at 9:02 comment added Alice Ryhl @metacompactness By the fundamental theorem of calculus if $F(x)$ is the antiderivative of $f(x)$ then any other antiderivative can only differ by a constant. So no, there's no other antiderivatives.
Aug 9, 2014 at 23:40 history edited Pete L. Clark CC BY-SA 3.0
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Aug 9, 2014 at 22:27 comment added djechlin +1 especially for how a mathematician would salvage the first question.
Aug 9, 2014 at 14:25 vote accept James S. Cook
Aug 9, 2014 at 4:16 history edited Pete L. Clark CC BY-SA 3.0
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Aug 9, 2014 at 4:10 history edited Pete L. Clark CC BY-SA 3.0
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Aug 9, 2014 at 4:03 history answered Pete L. Clark CC BY-SA 3.0